Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 02:05
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What was the first Native American tribe to inhabit Long Island, NY?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If there exists a “New York of Australia”, is it Sydney or Melbourne?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why aren't F1 cars popular on the street?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.